The list of injuries for Chennai Super Kings is expanding before the commencement of the Indian Premier League (IPL) 2024. After Shivam Dube, their key all-rounder Rachin Ravindra has suffered a knee injury and will not be available for the second T20I between New Zealand and Australia.
The official page of New Zealand Cricket has shared an update on the all-rounder.
The statement by the New Zealand Cricket Board reads, “Rachin Ravindra will miss tonight’s 2nd KFC T20I at Eden Park after experiencing pain in his left knee following the first game in Wellington. He will be treated and monitored over the coming days before a decision is made on his availability for the third T20I.”
With the IPL just a month away, the defending champions face a significant setback with Rachin Ravindra’s injury. The all-rounder was a recent addition to the squad and he was purchased by CSK for INR 1.8 crore in the auction. His versatility in contributing to both batting and bowling makes this injury a major loss for the team. Rachin Ravindra was part of the team in the ICC World Cup 2023 held in India.
Rachin Ravindra showcased his skills by scoring a fifty in the initial T20I against Australia and delivered an impressive performance during the Test series against South Africa.
